Ought to vs. should

Discussion in 'Philosophy' started by bkadoctaj, Mar 30, 2008.

  1. #1 bkadoctaj, Mar 30, 2008
    What's the difference? Is there even one?
     
  2. #2 scoobydooby67, Mar 30, 2008
    i swear there should be a "semantic of the english language" forum.

    when i use it, (my perspective is the only one i can speak for)

    there is no difference.

    i use them interchangeably.

    except around here they are pronounced as "otta" and "shid".
     
  3. #3 bkadoctaj, Mar 30, 2008

    Yeah, my girlfriend asked me that question. I was stumped.
     
  4. #4 Pink Oddity, Mar 30, 2008
    I never say ought to. Probably because I think it's ought of. But in all actuality it's ought have. Eh..
     
  5. #5 BubbleFunker, Mar 30, 2008
    This thread has the potential to get really ridiculous, really quickly.
    They are both the same, by definition.

    Now, try looking up: faith and superstition, and tell me what the difference is. :)
     
  6. #6 scoobydooby67, Mar 30, 2008
    difference:

    the power to influence legislation.

    a budget of 130 million annually (Vatican stats from 2006)

    the ability to make human beings throw all common sense and logical reasoning out the window, to the extent of killing oneself and others.

    etcetera etcetera etcetera (King and I anyone?)
     
  7. #7 BubbleFunker, Mar 30, 2008
    It's all a load a crap, ain't it?
     

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