Sec. 43.02. PROSTITUTION. (a) A person commits an offense if he knowingly: (1) offers to engage, agrees to engage, or engages in sexual conduct for a fee; or (2) solicits another in a public place to engage with him in sexual conduct for hire. (b) An offense is established under Subsection (a)(1) whether the actor is to receive or pay a fee. An offense is established under Subsection (a)(2) whether the actor solicits a person to hire him or offers to hire the person solicited. Someone point out to me that Texas Prostitution Statutes is sexist. I didn't see it the first time. But the more I read it, I can see it. The "he" and "him" makes it sexist. I tried to find out through the rules of construction and the definition section. It doesn't set a different definition rules. (a)1 looks like applies to male prostitute or john. (a)2 looks like applies to homosexual prostitution. How does this applies to female escorts?